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Originally, The Bill Of Rights Restrained Which Of The Following?

tect, and defend" the ______. A) United States B) Congress C) Constitution D) White House E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 2. ______ is the belief in limiting governmental power by a written charter. A) Federalism B) Constitutionalism C) Democracy D) Autocracy E) Writ of mandamus Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 3. Which of the following is a constitutional function? A) Outlining the organization of government B) Granting power C) Providing a mainstay of rights D) Serving as a symbol of the nation E) All of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): E Correct 4. The phrase "we hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal" comes from which of the following documents? A) Constitution B) Articles of Confederation C) Declaration of Independence D) Glorious Revolution E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 5. The first plan of a national government for the thirteen American states, later replaced by the Constitution, was the ______. A) Magna Carta B) Virginia Plan C) New Jersey Plan D) Articles of Confederation E) Declaration of Independence Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Incorrect 6. Which of the following is a system of government in which ultimate political authority lies in the central government? A) Federal system B) Confederate system C) Unitary system D) Democratic system E) None of the above. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 7. The number of Electoral College delegates allocated to each of the states is measured by the size of each state's _______. A) Gross Domestic Product B) net Worth C) population D) number of voters E) number of immigrants Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 8. The total number of Electoral College delegates is equal to the number of total _______. A) U.S. senators B) U.S. House of Representatives C) U.S. senators plus representatives D) U.S. citizens of voting age E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 9. Which of the following associations is incorrect? A) New Federalism and the Republican administrations of Presidents Nixon B) New Federalism and the Republican administration of President Reagan C) A reduction in national policy initiatives in the Democratic administration of Franklin Roosevelt in the New Deal D) An explosion of national policy initiatives in the Democratic administration of Lyndon Johnson in the Great Society E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Incorrect 10. President George W. Bush's administration was a strong advocate of state self-reliance during crisis as well as the scaling back of federal environmental regulations. This is an example of what kind of policy? A) New Federalism B) Dual Federalism C) Marble Cake Federalism D) Home Rule E) Electoral College Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 11. The first time the elastic clause was specifically interpreted was in _______. A) The Constitution B) McCulloch v. Maryland C) Marbury v. Madision D) The Articles of Confederation Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 12. The reserve powers ratified in a 1791 amendment to the U.S. Constitution refer to which of the following? A) Powers not specifically permitted to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution B) Powers not specifically prohibited to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution C) Rights not specifically permitted to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution D) Rights not specifically prohibited to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution E) The Bill of Rights Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 13. The reserve powers of the states come from the _______. A) president B) Tenth Amendment C) Eighteenth Amendment D) elastic clause Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 14. Originally, the Bill of Rights restrained which of the following? A) Only the powers of the courts B) Only state and local governments C) All governments in the United States D) Only the national government Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 15. What was the Fourteenth Amendment used to do? A) Promote defense policy primarily B) Apply Article I, Section 1 to local governments C) Apply the Bill of Rights to the states D) Overturn the Eleventh Amendment Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 16. According to the text, __________ "spells out what is valued and what is not, what must be maintained and what must be changed." A) the capitalist system B) the president C) the Constitution D) an ideology Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 17. The theory that states "gain their legitimacy from the consent of the governed and are formed primarily to protect the rights of individuals to life, liberty, and property" is called A) contact theory B) contract theory C) conflict theory D) condition theory E) constitution theory Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 18. The ideologies of ______ and _________ are considered radical, because they challenge much of the existing social and political order. A) democratic socialism, libertarianism B) conservatism, liberalism C) conservatism, progressivism D) neoconservatism, liberalism E) populism, liberalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 19. Classical liberalism believed which of the following? A) The government that governed least governed best. B) The government that governed most governed best. C) Absolute government control was necessary. D) Socialism was the ideal form of government. E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 20. Like Thomas Jefferson, Andrew Jackson believed that liberty was the absence of government interference with the rights of all citizens to enjoy the fruits of their labor and prosperity. This is an example of which of the following? A) Democratic socialism B) Classical liberalism C) Conservatism D) Neoconservatism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 21. All EXCEPT which of the following are considered milestones in American Conservatism? A) Warren Harding was elected president, marking the beginning of a new era of conservative dominance lasting until 1932. B) The National Review was founded, marking the beginning of the intellectual revitalization of post-World War II conservatism. C) President Lyndon Johnson successfully pushed his Great Society programs through Congress. D) President Ronald Reagan began his program of tax reductions, domestic spending cuts, and defense buildup E) George W. Bush and Dick Cheney won the electoral vote and embarked on an agenda of tax cuts, defense spending, and environmental deregulation. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 22. Liberals champion a humanistic and nonmilitary approach to _______. A) the war on drugs B) foreign policy C) defense policy D) docial policy E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 23. Frank is an avid supporter of government programs that ease the problems of industrialization such as worker's compensation. Frank's political ideology is most in line with _______. A) Progressivism B) Conservatism C) Libertarianism D) Democratic Socialism E) Social Darwinism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 24. Reflections on the Revolution in France (1790) by Edmund Burke is considered the first major statement of _______. A) Conservatism B) Liberalism C) The New Right D) Neoliberalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 25. Laissez-faire economics is a view that government should do which of the following? A) Not interfere in the workings of the economy B) Interfere in the workings of the economy C) Strictly regulate business D) Promote social welfare Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 26. _______ is a combination of the views, attitudes, and ideas held by individuals in a community. A) Majority viewpoint B) Public opinion C) Majority stability D) Underlying values Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 27. Public opinion that fluctuates in response to social, political, and economic events is _______. A) intense B) constant C) casual preference D) dynamic Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 28. The majority of Americans are which of the following? A) Not very proud of their country B) Not very attached to national symbols C) Either very or extremely proud of their country D) Less proud of their country than people in other nations are of theirs Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 29. Which of the following is NOT a basic value of democracy? A) Equality B) Christianity C) Freedom D) Consent of the governed Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 30. According to the text, perhaps the most important matter on which Americans differ is ______. A) industrialization B) urbanization C) political ideology D) regionalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 31. The role of groups is emphasized in the concept of America as what type of democracy? A) Group intensive democracy B) Elitist democracy C) Pluralist democracy D) Liberal democracy Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 32. The size of an interest group is the most important factor in determining what? A) Ideology B) Effectiveness C) Support of candidates for public office D) Closeness to the mainstream of American politics Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 33. Many interest groups try to create public support or sympathy for their political goals. What is the major channel for this support? A) Word-of-mouth B) Political action committees C) The mass media D) High-tech lobbying of Congress Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 34. How has direct mail been used in recent years by interest groups? A) To discredit the government B) To elect opinion leaders C) To solicit financial contributions D) To form political parties Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 35. The Federal Election Act of 1974 caused political action committees to do what? A) Proliferate B) Become less prominent C) Decrease greatly in number D) Become less involved in politics Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 36. Political parties and interest groups are alike in that their members do which of the following? A) Select candidates to run for public office B) Share common political views or objectives C) Seek to gain control of the government D) Focus on a wide range of issues Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 37. A caucus is which of the following? A) A meeting of members of a political party or the members of a party in a legislature B) A process of selecting delegates to the national conventions, which nominate presidential candidates C) The seventh party system D) Both A and B E) Both A and C Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 38. Political machines are political organizations that do which of the following? A) Recruit and control their membership through the use of governmental authority to bestow benefits on supporters and withhold them from opponents B) Run the voting machines citizens use to vote on election day C) Run the voting machines that tally the votes on election day D) Guide political party organizations on an ongoing basis E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 39. Political candidates and parties often conjure up broad statements of their philosophies and programs under which they will run for election. These are called a party or candidate ______. A) transform B) chloroform C) platform D) platitude E) latitude Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 40. What is the quadrennial meeting of an American political party that focused on the upcoming presidential election called? A) National meeting B) National convention C) American convention D) Conventional politics E) Party election Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 41. Many observers see party resurgence in which context? A) Only in the formal party organization B) Only in the party in the electorate C) Only in the party in government D) In the party organization, the party in the electorate, and, to some extent, the party in government Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 42. Personal campaign organizations, single-issue interest groups, and the rise of the public welfare system are some of the reasons for which of the following? A) Party balance B) Party organizations C) Party decline D) The party in government component of political parties Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 43. Ultimate authority within party organizations in the United States is vested in _______. A) the national level B) the state level C) both the national and state levels D) the Constitution Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 44. A_______ election is when the victor must receive more than half of all the votes? A) proportional B) plurality C) majority D) deviating Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 45. Plurality or majority elections, rather than proportional representation, help explain why the United States has a _______. A) multiparty system B) two-party system C) unitary party system D) proportional representation system Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 46. All except which of the following are reform proposals for electoral mechanics? A) A one-day national primary B) A series of regional primaries C) Removing the legal obligation that now requires electors to be faithful D) A direct popular election of presidents Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Incorrect 47. Which of the following is true of presidential popularity? A) It did not affect congressional elections when Reagan ran in 1980, but it did when George Bush ran in 1988. B) It typically means little or nothing in midterm congressional elections. C) It was first referred to as "coattails" by then Congressman Abraham Lincoln. D) It had sagged so far that Bush lost a lot of Republican congressional support in the midterm elections of 1990. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 48. The polls of voters taken as they leave polling places, usually conducted by the media to get an advance indication of voting trends and facilitate analysis of the reasons behind the outcome of the election, are called _______. A) retreat polls B) exit polls C) entrance polls D) general polls E) primary polls Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Incorrect 49. The ________ elections purpose is to choose the candidates who will hold public office and ___________ the primary election. A) primary; precedes B) primary; follows C) general; precedes D) general; follows E) special; follows Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 50. What are the two social characteristics with the strongest relation to voting? A) Age and income B) Age and education C) Income and education D) Gender and income E) Race and income Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B
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1. Every United States president takes an oath to "preserve, protect, and defend" the ______. A) United States B) Congress C) Constitution D) White House E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 2. ______ is the belief in limiting governmental power by a written charter. A) Federalism B) Constitutionalism C) Democracy D) Autocracy E) Writ of mandamus Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 3. Which of the following is a constitutional function? A) Outlining the organization of government B) Granting power C) Providing a mainstay of rights D) Serving as a symbol of the nation E) All of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): E Correct 4. The phrase "we hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal" comes from which of the following documents? A) Constitution B) Articles of Confederation C) Declaration of Independence D) Glorious Revolution E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 5. The first plan of a national government for the thirteen American states, later replaced by the Constitution, was the ______. A) Magna Carta B) Virginia Plan C) New Jersey Plan D) Articles of Confederation E) Declaration of Independence Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Incorrect 6. Which of the following is a system of government in which ultimate political authority lies in the central government? A) Federal system B) Confederate system C) Unitary system D) Democratic system E) None of the above. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 7. The number of Electoral College delegates allocated to each of the states is measured by the size of each state's _______. A) Gross Domestic Product B) net Worth C) population D) number of voters E) number of immigrants Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 8. The total number of Electoral College delegates is equal to the number of total _______. A) U.S. senators B) U.S. House of Representatives C) U.S. senators plus representatives D) U.S. citizens of voting age E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 9. Which of the following associations is incorrect? A) New Federalism and the Republican administrations of Presidents Nixon B) New Federalism and the Republican administration of President Reagan C) A reduction in national policy initiatives in the Democratic administration of Franklin Roosevelt in the New Deal D) An explosion of national policy initiatives in the Democratic administration of Lyndon Johnson in the Great Society E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Incorrect 10. President George W. Bush's administration was a strong advocate of state self-reliance during crisis as well as the scaling back of federal environmental regulations. This is an example of what kind of policy? A) New Federalism B) Dual Federalism C) Marble Cake Federalism D) Home Rule E) Electoral College Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 11. The first time the elastic clause was specifically interpreted was in _______. A) The Constitution B) McCulloch v. Maryland C) Marbury v. Madision D) The Articles of Confederation Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 12. The reserve powers ratified in a 1791 amendment to the U.S. Constitution refer to which of the following? A) Powers not specifically permitted to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution B) Powers not specifically prohibited to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution C) Rights not specifically permitted to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution D) Rights not specifically prohibited to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution E) The Bill of Rights Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 13. The reserve powers of the states come from the _______. A) president B) Tenth Amendment C) Eighteenth Amendment D) elastic clause Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 14. Originally, the Bill of Rights restrained which of the following? A) Only the powers of the courts B) Only state and local governments C) All governments in the United States D) Only the national government Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 15. What was the Fourteenth Amendment used to do? A) Promote defense policy primarily B) Apply Article I, Section 1 to local governments C) Apply the Bill of Rights to the states D) Overturn the Eleventh Amendment Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 16. According to the text, __________ "spells out what is valued and what is not, what must be maintained and what must be changed." A) the capitalist system B) the president C) the Constitution D) an ideology Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 17. The theory that states "gain their legitimacy from the consent of the governed and are formed primarily to protect the rights of individuals to life, liberty, and property" is called A) contact theory B) contract theory C) conflict theory D) condition theory E) constitution theory Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 18. The ideologies of ______ and _________ are considered radical, because they challenge much of the existing social and political order. A) democratic socialism, libertarianism B) conservatism, liberalism C) conservatism, progressivism D) neoconservatism, liberalism E) populism, liberalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 19. Classical liberalism believed which of the following? A) The government that governed least governed best. B) The government that governed most governed best. C) Absolute government control was necessary. D) Socialism was the ideal form of government. E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 20. Like Thomas Jefferson, Andrew Jackson believed that liberty was the absence of government interference with the rights of all citizens to enjoy the fruits of their labor and prosperity. This is an example of which of the following? A) Democratic socialism B) Classical liberalism C) Conservatism D) Neoconservatism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 21. All EXCEPT which of the following are considered milestones in American Conservatism? A) Warren Harding was elected president, marking the beginning of a new era of conservative dominance lasting until 1932. B) The National Review was founded, marking the beginning of the intellectual revitalization of post-World War II conservatism. C) President Lyndon Johnson successfully pushed his Great Society programs through Congress. D) President Ronald Reagan began his program of tax reductions, domestic spending cuts, and defense buildup E) George W. Bush and Dick Cheney won the electoral vote and embarked on an agenda of tax cuts, defense spending, and environmental deregulation. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 22. Liberals champion a humanistic and nonmilitary approach to _______. A) the war on drugs B) foreign policy C) defense policy D) docial policy E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 23. Frank is an avid supporter of government programs that ease the problems of industrialization such as worker's compensation. Frank's political ideology is most in line with _______. A) Progressivism B) Conservatism C) Libertarianism D) Democratic Socialism E) Social Darwinism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 24. Reflections on the Revolution in France (1790) by Edmund Burke is considered the first major statement of _______. A) Conservatism B) Liberalism C) The New Right D) Neoliberalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 25. Laissez-faire economics is a view that government should do which of the following? A) Not interfere in the workings of the economy B) Interfere in the workings of the economy C) Strictly regulate business D) Promote social welfare Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 26. _______ is a combination of the views, attitudes, and ideas held by individuals in a community. A) Majority viewpoint B) Public opinion C) Majority stability D) Underlying values Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 27. Public opinion that fluctuates in response to social, political, and economic events is _______. A) intense B) constant C) casual preference D) dynamic Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 28. The majority of Americans are which of the following? A) Not very proud of their country B) Not very attached to national symbols C) Either very or extremely proud of their country D) Less proud of their country than people in other nations are of theirs Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 29. Which of the following is NOT a basic value of democracy? A) Equality B) Christianity C) Freedom D) Consent of the governed Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 30. According to the text, perhaps the most important matter on which Americans differ is ______. A) industrialization B) urbanization C) political ideology D) regionalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 31. The role of groups is emphasized in the concept of America as what type of democracy? A) Group intensive democracy B) Elitist democracy C) Pluralist democracy D) Liberal democracy Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 32. The size of an interest group is the most important factor in determining what? A) Ideology B) Effectiveness C) Support of candidates for public office D) Closeness to the mainstream of American politics Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 33. Many interest groups try to create public support or sympathy for their political goals. What is the major channel for this support? A) Word-of-mouth B) Political action committees C) The mass media D) High-tech lobbying of Congress Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 34. How has direct mail been used in recent years by interest groups? A) To discredit the government B) To elect opinion leaders C) To solicit financial contributions D) To form political parties Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 35. The Federal Election Act of 1974 caused political action committees to do what? A) Proliferate B) Become less prominent C) Decrease greatly in number D) Become less involved in politics Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 36. Political parties and interest groups are alike in that their members do which of the following? A) Select candidates to run for public office B) Share common political views or objectives C) Seek to gain control of the government D) Focus on a wide range of issues Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 37. A caucus is which of the following? A) A meeting of members of a political party or the members of a party in a legislature B) A process of selecting delegates to the national conventions, which nominate presidential candidates C) The seventh party system D) Both A and B E) Both A and C Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 38. Political machines are political organizations that do which of the following? A) Recruit and control their membership through the use of governmental authority to bestow benefits on supporters and withhold them from opponents B) Run the voting machines citizens use to vote on election day C) Run the voting machines that tally the votes on election day D) Guide political party organizations on an ongoing basis E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 39. Political candidates and parties often conjure up broad statements of their philosophies and programs under which they will run for election. These are called a party or candidate ______. A) transform B) chloroform C) platform D) platitude E) latitude Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 40. What is the quadrennial meeting of an American political party that focused on the upcoming presidential election called? A) National meeting B) National convention C) American convention D) Conventional politics E) Party election Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 41. Many observers see party resurgence in which context? A) Only in the formal party organization B) Only in the party in the electorate C) Only in the party in government D) In the party organization, the party in the electorate, and, to some extent, the party in government Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 42. Personal campaign organizations, single-issue interest groups, and the rise of the public welfare system are some of the reasons for which of the following? A) Party balance B) Party organizations C) Party decline D) The party in government component of political parties Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 43. Ultimate authority within party organizations in the United States is vested in _______. A) the national level B) the state level C) both the national and state levels D) the Constitution Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 44. A_______ election is when the victor must receive more than half of all the votes? A) proportional B) plurality C) majority D) deviating Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 45. Plurality or majority elections, rather than proportional representation, help explain why the United States has a _______. A) multiparty system B) two-party system C) unitary party system D) proportional representation system Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 46. All except which of the following are reform proposals for electoral mechanics? A) A one-day national primary B) A series of regional primaries C) Removing the legal obligation that now requires electors to be faithful D) A direct popular election of presidents Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Incorrect 47. Which of the following is true of presidential popularity? A) It did not affect congressional elections when Reagan ran in 1980, but it did when George Bush ran in 1988. B) It typically means little or nothing in midterm congressional elections. C) It was first referred to as "coattails" by then Congressman Abraham Lincoln. D) It had sagged so far that Bush lost a lot of Republican congressional support in the midterm elections of 1990. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 48. The polls of voters taken as they leave polling places, usually conducted by the media to get an advance indication of voting trends and facilitate analysis of the reasons behind the outcome of the election, are called _______. A) retreat polls B) exit polls C) entrance polls D) general polls E) primary polls Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Incorrect 49. The ________ elections purpose is to choose the candidates who will hold public office and ___________ the primary election. A) primary; precedes B) primary; follows C) general; precedes D) general; follows E) special; follows Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 50. What are the two social characteristics with the strongest relation to voting? A) Age and income B) Age and education C) Income and education D) Gender and income E) Race and income Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B

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